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Don't know if anyone else knows - but why are there now so few deaths in hospitals when the main death figure is relatively static. So, for instance, today there are 13 hospital deaths, 120 overall. Why are so many people dying of/with covid-19 without going to / being taken to hospital...

Or even better, get your Auntie to subscribe one year for you, and you may find that almost 30 years later she is still buying you the same birthday present - and it just arrives on the doormat every fortnight without you having to do anything.

https://twitter.com/statstadium/status/1258794562505629696 (sorry - not sure how you link to a tweet image)

Fewer deaths day by day. Smaller percentage of those being tested being positive. Reducing number if hospital admissions and people in hospital. All happening.

Yes - but today's figure has a higher than normal number from the past looking at this - it seems to have been a general catch-up, not just the weekend's worth.

Spain don't include care home deaths either though - this article says that their true figure could be 40% higher than stated https://www.ft.com/content/71e991a1-53ff-49f5-85b4-b111de7ddf6e

It can't only be those who turn up to hospital pretty ill who are/were being tested - otherwise surely that would mean something like 150k in hospital. I don't think we'e reached those numbers. Or have we?

That still is the idea really, and they haven't really said it isn't. The whole 'flattening the peak' graphs we were shown at the beginning of lockdown didn't ever say that the virus would go away or be dealt with. It's all about slowing the spread and infections so that the NHS are not...

Not necessarily. More likely to mean that most of those who died yesterday will appear in subsequent stats.

After your response to my last attempt to explain, I'm not actually sure it's worth trying again. But surely you must see that there is a difference between people dying because of Covid-19, and people dying who also happen to be infected with Covid-19 (such as the example given)? If the...

This is a simplistic attempt an explanation - I'm neither a scientist nor a statistician, so just my amateur understanding: It is likely that some of those who would have died at home in normal years are, before their 'normal' time, being affected by covid-19 and being hospitalised, and then...

That's not what he said or meant. What he was saying is that in a normal year, lots of people die without taking up hospital beds for an extended period of time - such as at home, or after short hospital stays. And from my experience and the people I know who have died, that's pretty much...

Not only that, but they include a 'range' figure (lowest and highest projections). Today, they predict a cumulative total of 7,434, with the probability range being between 6,283-9,071. The official figures are 6,159. So, we're already below their lowest prediction.

It does have more detail, but doesn't really explain why they are predicting such vast differences, when most models show that we are basically on a similar logarithmic curve and death numbers as Spain, France and Italy, with not widely varying population counts.

Have a look here - it will be updated tomorrow, but still be a good few days behind. You won't find anything more accurate. https://www.ons.gov.uk/peoplepopulationandcommunity/birthsdeathsandmarriages/deaths/datasets/weeklyprovisionalfiguresondeathsregisteredinenglandandwales